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Exam Code: 640-722
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
640-722 Exam Cost Total Q&A: 272 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 06-07,2015

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NO.1 Which governing body analyzes the applications and environments in which wireless networks
are used?
A. EIRP
B. ETSI
C. FCC
D. IEEE
E. WiFi Alliance
Answer: D

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NO.2 A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like
this:
interface GigabitEthernet 1 / 0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the
Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Since the controller management interface is connected to the native vlan interface of the Cisco
Catalyst switch, the correct command is: config interface vlan management vlan-id 0
(http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/controller/ 5.0/configuration/guide/c5mint.html#wp11
82

NO.3 Which two items are needed to discover the IP address of a new Cisco Aironet 1260
autonomous AP that just finished booting? (Choose two.)
A. username = "cisco" and password = "cisco"
B. username = "Admin" and password = "Cisco"
C. username=Cisco and password=Cisco
D. show int vlan1
E. show int bvi1
F. show int gigabitethernet0
G. show int radio0-802.11n
H. show int radio1-802.11n
Answer: C,E

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9. Which statement correctly describes the procedure for a lightweight AP to successfully
establish a connection to a controller?
A. The AP authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate
to the controller.
B. The AP sends its certificate to the controller. The AP then authenticates the received Cisco WLC
certificate as valid.
C. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the controller
certificate as valid.
D. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the RADIUS
certificate as valid.
E. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its
certificate to the RADIUS server.
F. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its
certificate to the controller.
Answer: B

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10. Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Answer: A,E

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11. Which two statements best describe the LAG configuration between a Cisco WLC and a Cisco
Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. The Catalyst switch should be configured for PAgP .
B. The Catalyst switch should be configured only for Layer 2 load balancing.
C. The Catalyst switch should be configured for "on" mode.
D. The Cisco WLC relies on the connected switch to perform the load-balance of traffic.
E. The Cisco WLC aggregates multiple management interfaces into a single virtual interface.
Answer: C,D

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12. Which two Cisco Unified Wireless Network capabilities use information that is provided by
Radio Resource Management neighbor messages in version 7.0 MR1? (Choose two.)
A. aggressive load balancing
B. dynamic channel assignment
C. hybrid remote edge access point
D. inter-controller mobility (that is, mobility groups)
E. rogue AP classification
Answer: B,E

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13. The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to
be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are
unable to connect to the network with their pre-shared key.
Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs > WLAN_ID > Advanced
B. Security > Clients
C. Security > Advanced > Clients
D. Monitor > Clients
E. Wireless > 802.11b/g/n > clients
Answer: D

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14. You are about to use a hotel's guest wireless services using a wireless laptop.
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless connection? (Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
Answer: A,C,F

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15. Refer to the exhibit.
Which three switch port types are valid for these connections? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. port-channel
C. port-channel trunk
D. trunk
E. port-channel access
F. routed port
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which statement about an infrastructure basic service set is true according to IEEE 802.11
specifications?
A. The set also is called an ad hoc network.
B. The BSSID is generated from the first wireless client that starts up in the IBSS.
C. The set enables the use of ESS.
D. No signals are relayed from one client to another client.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two statements about WiMAX technology are true? (Choose two.)
A. WiMAX is defined by 802.11i.
B. Typically, fixed WiMAX networks have a higher-gain directional antenna installed near the client.
C. WiMAX is capable of working as a long-range system over several miles.
D. WiMAX works only for licensed frequencies.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 The IEEE 802.11n standard provides 40-MHz channels, improved MAC efficiency, and MIMO.
Which three elements define the 802.11n implementation of MIMO? (Choose three.)
A. channel bonding
B. dynamic frequency selection
C. maximal ratio combining
D. packet aggregation
E. spatial multiplexing
F. transmit beam forming
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.7 Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose
two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm
C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which description best describes upfade in a multipath environment?
A. In this situation, multiple signal paths are not sent at exactly the same time. The receiver receives
a positive crest on the primary signal and a negative crest on the secondary signal.
B. In this situation, the multiple signal paths are distorted and difficult to understand.
C. In this situation, the multiple signal paths are weaker than they should be because the signals are
out of phase with each other.
D. In this situation, the signal is stronger than it should be because multiple signal paths are
received twice at exactly the same time, which results in the multiple signals being in-phase.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which description best describes upfade in a multipath environment?
A. In this situation, multiple signal paths are not sent at exactly the same time. The receiver receives
a positive crest on the primary signal and a negative crest on the secondary signal.
B. In this situation, the multiple signal paths are distorted and difficult to understand.
C. In this situation, the multiple signal paths are weaker than they should be because the signals are
out of phase with each other.
D. In this situation, the signal is stronger than it should be because multiple signal paths are
received twice at exactly the same time, which results in the multiple signals being in-phase.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose
two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm
C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which two items are needed to discover the IP address of a new Cisco Aironet 1260
autonomous AP that just finished booting? (Choose two.)
A. username = "cisco" and password = "cisco"
B. username = "Admin" and password = "Cisco"
C. username=Cisco and password=Cisco
D. show int vlan1
E. show int bvi1
F. show int gigabitethernet0
G. show int radio0-802.11n
H. show int radio1-802.11n
Answer: C,E

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9. Which statement correctly describes the procedure for a lightweight AP to successfully
establish a connection to a controller?
A. The AP authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate
to the controller.
B. The AP sends its certificate to the controller. The AP then authenticates the received Cisco WLC
certificate as valid.
C. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the controller
certificate as valid.
D. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the RADIUS
certificate as valid.
E. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its
certificate to the RADIUS server.
F. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its
certificate to the controller.
Answer: B

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10. Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Answer: A,E

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11. Which two statements best describe the LAG configuration between a Cisco WLC and a Cisco
Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. The Catalyst switch should be configured for PAgP .
B. The Catalyst switch should be configured only for Layer 2 load balancing.
C. The Catalyst switch should be configured for "on" mode.
D. The Cisco WLC relies on the connected switch to perform the load-balance of traffic.
E. The Cisco WLC aggregates multiple management interfaces into a single virtual interface.
Answer: C,D

Cisco exam dumps   640-722 study guide   640-722
12. Which two Cisco Unified Wireless Network capabilities use information that is provided by
Radio Resource Management neighbor messages in version 7.0 MR1? (Choose two.)
A. aggressive load balancing
B. dynamic channel assignment
C. hybrid remote edge access point
D. inter-controller mobility (that is, mobility groups)
E. rogue AP classification
Answer: B,E

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13. The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to
be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are
unable to connect to the network with their pre-shared key.
Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs > WLAN_ID > Advanced
B. Security > Clients
C. Security > Advanced > Clients
D. Monitor > Clients
E. Wireless > 802.11b/g/n > clients
Answer: D

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14. You are about to use a hotel's guest wireless services using a wireless laptop.
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless connection? (Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
Answer: A,C,F

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15. Refer to the exhibit.
Which three switch port types are valid for these connections? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. port-channel
C. port-channel trunk
D. trunk
E. port-channel access
F. routed port
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 The IEEE 802.11n standard provides 40-MHz channels, improved MAC efficiency, and MIMO.
Which three elements define the 802.11n implementation of MIMO? (Choose three.)
A. channel bonding
B. dynamic frequency selection
C. maximal ratio combining
D. packet aggregation
E. spatial multiplexing
F. transmit beam forming
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.5 Which governing body analyzes the applications and environments in which wireless networks
are used?
A. EIRP
B. ETSI
C. FCC
D. IEEE
E. WiFi Alliance
Answer: D

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NO.6 A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like
this:
interface GigabitEthernet 1 / 0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the
Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Since the controller management interface is connected to the native vlan interface of the Cisco
Catalyst switch, the correct command is: config interface vlan management vlan-id 0
(http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/controller/ 5.0/configuration/guide/c5mint.html#wp11
82

NO.7 Which statement about an infrastructure basic service set is true according to IEEE 802.11
specifications?
A. The set also is called an ad hoc network.
B. The BSSID is generated from the first wireless client that starts up in the IBSS.
C. The set enables the use of ESS.
D. No signals are relayed from one client to another client.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two statements about WiMAX technology are true? (Choose two.)
A. WiMAX is defined by 802.11i.
B. Typically, fixed WiMAX networks have a higher-gain directional antenna installed near the client.
C. WiMAX is capable of working as a long-range system over several miles.
D. WiMAX works only for licensed frequencies.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 640-722
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
640-722 Exam Tests Total Q&A: 272 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 06-05,2015

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Exam Code: 642-732
Exam Name: Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
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Latest Juniper JN0-332 of exam practice questions and answers

NO.1 What is supported on the fabric link?
A. jumbo frames
B. filters
C. fragmentation
D. policies
Answer: A

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NO.2 A network administrator has configured source NAT, translating to an address that is on a
locally connected subnet. The administrator sees the translation working, but traffic does not appear
to come back. What is causing the problem?
A. The host needs to open the telnet port.
B. The host needs a route for the translated address.
C. The administrator must use a proxy-arp policy for the translated address.
D. The administrator must use a security policy, which will allow communication between the zones.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, client PC 192.168.10.10 cannot ping 1.1.1.2. Which is a potential cause for this
problem?
A. The untrust zone does not have a management policy configured.
B. The trust zone does not have ping enabled as a host-inbound-traffic service.
C. The security policy from the trust zone to the untrust zone does not permit ping.
D. No security policy exists for the ICMP reply packet from the untrust zone to the trust zone.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are creating a security policy on an SRX Series device with a permit action.
What are two possible actions the device also performs on matching traffic? (Choose two)
A. Send the traffic to a routing-instance.
B. Send the traffic to a logical system
C. Send the traffic to an IPSec tunnel
D. Send the traffic for IDP evaluation
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which parameters are valid SCREEN options for combating operating system probes?
A. syn-fin, syn-flood, and tcp-no-frag
B. syn-fin, port-scan, and tcp-no-flag
C. syn-fin, fin-no-ack, and tcp-no-frag
D. syn-fin, syn-ack-ack-proxy, and tcp-no-frag
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about interfaces, zones, and routing-instance relationships?
A. All interfaces in a zone must belong to the same routing instance.
B. All interfaces in a routing instance must belong to the same zone.
C. All interfaces in a zone must be in inet.0.
D. Each interface in a VR must belong to a unique security zone.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true when express AV detects a virus in TCP session?
A. TCP RST is sent and a session is restarted.
B. TCP connection is closed gracefully and the data content is dropped.
C. TCP traffic is allowed and an SNMP trap is sent.
D. AV scanning is restarted.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two valid match conditions for source NAT? (Choose two.)
A. port range
B. source port
C. source address
D. destination address
Answer: C,D

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Cisco 200-401 exam practice questions and answers

NO.1 What is the purpose of a time domain reflectometer?
A. It uses pulses to locate and test for sheath faults, damaged conductors, loose connectors, splices,
bridge taps, split pairs, and other problems.
B. It opens shorts and pinholes in cable shielding.
C. It correlates the returned light pulses with a location in the fiber.
D. It opens kinks and mismatched cable connectors.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is
turned on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions?
(Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B. The PC has received a DHCP address.
C. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
D. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/s.
E. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
F. The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which of the following correctly pairs the dotted decimal subnet mask with the correct number
of binary bits that represent the subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.192 and /25
B. 255.255.255.248 and /28
C. 255.255.255.224 and /26
D. 255.255.255.248 and /27
E. 255.255.255.240 and /28
F. 255.255.255.240 and /16
Answer: E

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NO.4 Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All
the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs
have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router eigrp 123C-
router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router ospf 1C-
router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router
ripCrouter(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem and want to isolate the problem. You suspect
that a router on the route to an unreachable network is at fault. Which command would you issue to
see where the packets stop?
A. router#ping
B. router#tracert
C. router#show ip route
D. router#show cdp neighbors
E. router#traceroute
Answer: E

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NO.1 You use Crystal Reports for Enterprise.
How can you align columns in your report?
A. Use smart guidelines.
B. Use conditional formatting.
C. Use calculations.
D. Use format painter.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is a tool for ad hoc analysis and reporting to be used by business
users/end users?
A. Dashboard Design
B. Crystal Reports
C. Web Intelligence
D. Web Application Designer
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have created a Web Intelligence document that displays data from the query in a single
table. Now you edit the query and add two additional objects.
Where will the new objects appear when you re-run the query?
A. In the existing table
B. In the Document Summary panel
C. In a new table
D. In the Available Objects panel
Answer: D

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NO.4 You create a dashboard and choose Save to Platform asDashboard Design Object.
What does the saved dashboard contain?
A. An object that contains both the design document and the Flash file
B. The design document only
C. An object that contains both the design document and the Excel file
D. The Flash file only
Answer: A

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NO.5 You create a workbook with exceptions in BEx Analyzer. Your customer does not like the
standard colors for Bad 1 and Good 2 exceptions.
What do you use to change the color settings in BEx Analyzer?
A. The theme
B. The portal theme
C. The XML file
D. The CSS file
Answer: A

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NO.6 In BEx Web applications, what is the function of a data provider?
A. To store data for offline scenarios
B. To combine data from different BEx Queries
C. To provide data to Web items
D. To connect to InfoProviders, information spaces, or BEx Query views
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is a capability in SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for Microsoft Office, PowerPoint?
A. You can use the same filter options as in Analysis for Excel.
B. You can split long tables across multiple slides.
C. You can provide a design panel for conditional formatting.
D. You can perform calculations and axes swapping.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In the Central Management Console (CMC), what does the SAP authentication area allow you to
do?(Choose two)
A. Import SAP roles.
B. Specify SAP systems.
C. Enable SAP BW publisher services.
D. Define custom access rights for SAP users.
Answer: A,B

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The Best SAP C_TSCM44_65 Exam Training materials

NO.1 How do you replace an old product with a new one in DP?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Use GATP rules
B. Use realignment
C. Use form fit function classes
D. Create an interchangeability group
E. Create a like profile
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid function of the internal BW?
A. It is only used to import historical data for DP. Reporting is executed using the external BW.
B. It can be used to back up planning results from liveCache to the database.
C. It is only used for DP. SNP and PP/DS do not use the internal BW.
D. Planning results stored in liveCache are automatically replicated to the database of the internal
BW.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer in the soft drinks industry wants to use promotions in DP.
If they plan a promotion for bottles, fewer cans will be planned automatically.
What do you need to configure to plan such a promotion?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Set up cannibalization groups.
B. Define the link between bottles and cans via macros.
C. Set up a macro that adds the promotion value to final sales.
D. Specify which characteristics can be used for promotions in the promotion profile.
E. Set up a promotion key figure and assign it to the planning area and characteristic.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Which statements describe macro capabilities for DP and SNP correctly?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. You can use macros to control layout attributes of a data view.
B. You create macros for the planning book rather than the data view.
C. You define macros at 4 levels: macro, step, result, and calculation.
D. You can generate your own alerts using macros.
E. You can only execute macros interactively with the start, default, and exit options.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 In the context of external procurement, which of the following master data objects are
transferred via CIF?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Quota arrangement
B. Scheduling agreement
C. Source list
D. Purchasing info record
E. Contract
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 A customer defines a variant for a production planning run and needs to specify the planning
objects for the SAP_MRP_002 heuristic. They ask you for the appropriate selection criteria.
Which of the following planning objects do you recommend?
A. Resources
B. Operations
C. Products
D. Orders
Answer: C

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NO.7 What influence does the checking horizon have for demands which cannot be confirmed in
time?
A. At the end of the checking horizon, the total demand quantities can be automatically confirmed.
B. Based on lot size procedure, the remaining quantity can be confirmed after the dynamically
calculated checking horizon.
C. At the end of the checking horizon, the remaining quantities have to be confirmed manually.
D. At the end of the checking horizon, the remaining quantity automatically creates a planned
receipt.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Rounding in DP can be a problem because of disaggregation.
How can you avoid large rounding errors?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Use a unit of measure with decimal values for the planning area and maintain unit conversion for
all products.
B. Use only calculation type S (pro rata) for all key figures.
C. Use a storage bucket profile with just one periodicity.
D. Restrict the number of key figures to a reasonable amount.
E. Use only small numbers in planning.
Answer: A,C

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SAP Certification C_HANAIMP141 exam pdf

NO.1 Which of the following SAP HANA schemas contains the runtime objects of activated views?
A. _SYS_STATISTICS
B. _SYS_REPO
C. _SYS_BI
D. _SYS_BIC
Answer: D

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NO.2 In a fuzzy search, when would you perform a freestyle search?
A. When you want to search with a high fuzziness threshold
B. When you want to search in multiple columns
C. When you want to search in only one column
D. When you want to search with a low fuzziness threshold
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NO.3 Which of the following should you try to implement as best practices for data modeling? Note:
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A. Perform aggregation in an attribute view.
B. Use filters to restrict the number of rows on the tables that make up the analytic views.
C. Execute calculated columns before any aggregation is performed.
D. Use a UNION when combining analytic views in a calculation view.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 In a graphical calculation view, you specify the default client to be dynamic.
How is the client value determined when the view is used?
A. By checking the session client of the user accessing the view.
B. By executing a procedure in the user's own schema.
C. By applying the filtering conditions on the client field.
D. By reading the client of the tables in the view.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the minimum requirement for a valid analytic view?
A. One fact table and one attribute view
B. One attribute view
C. One fact table and two attribute views
D. One fact table
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following can you use to implement currency conversion in an information model?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. A calculated column in a calculation view
B. A calculated column in an attribute view
C. A calculated column in an analytic view
D. A restricted column in an analytic view
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 You have created an input parameter in an information model.
In which of the following can you use the input parameter?
A. The creation of an SAP BEx query reading from the information model
B. The creation of an SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence report directly on the information model
C. The definition of objects in an SAP BusinessObjects universe
D. The definition of an information space that reads from the information model
Answer: C

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NO.8 You want to investigate the runtime of a SELECT statement against an analytic view.
Which of the following tools do you use to analyze the model performance, including transferred
data?
A. Plan visualizer
B. Load graph
C. SQL Editor
D. SQL Debugger
Answer: A

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