2015年4月28日星期二

C2170-009 Exam Questions, C2090-556 Study Guide, C2090-919 Study Guide

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NO.1 Cam raises which of the following to inform the workflow management system that a task has
been completed? C?am raises which of the following to inform the workflow management system
that a task has been completed?
A. Task
B. Process instance
C. Event
D. Workflow data object
E. Activity
Answer: C

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NO.2 John Smith has made a claim for a benefit for which three product components exist, namely,
personal rate, adult-dependant rate, and child-dependant rate. John Smith has been deemed eligible
for a payment of $50 per week with respect to himself, $30 per week with respect to his wife, and
$20 per week with respect to his child. By default, how many individual nominees exist on this case?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which options are available when there is an insufficient amount remaining on the benefit
payment to process the full deduction amount?
A. Deduct a percentage of the balance remaining
B. Deduct nothing
C. Deduct whatever amount remains and create a liability case
D. Deduct whatever amount remains
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following items are Cam Enterprise Modules?Which of the following items are
C?am Enterprise Modules?
A. Cam for Income SupportC?am for Income Support
B. Cam Financial ManagementC?am Financial Management
C. Cam Documentation CenterC?am Documentation Center
D. Cam VerificationC?am Verification
E. Cam WorkflowC?am Workflow
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about alternative IDs are true?
A. An alternative ID must be manually entered by a user
B. Alternative IDs are applicable only to persons
C. A participant must have at least one alternative ID
D. A participant can have no more than one alternative ID
E. A national insurance number may be a participant's alternative ID
Answer: C,E

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NO.1 Where do you assign a freight contract in a nomination to enable demurrage to be calculated?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Nomination item
B. Pegging ID
C. Nomination header
D. Reference document
E. Nomination subitem
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which key characteristics are used to classify crude oil?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Reid vapor pressure
B. Water content
C. API gravity
D. Viscosity curve
E. Sulfur content
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 Which sources of information can be used to capture data in a TSW ticket?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Bill of material
B. Load confirmation
C. Inspector report
D. Bill of lading
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Under which IMG node do you set up the customizable inbound process (CIP)?
A. Ticketing Customizing
B. Cross-Application Customizing
C. TSW Master Data Customizing
D. Nomination Customizing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which ERP supply-relevant master data objects can be replicated as locations in SAP APO?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Meters
B. Plant
C. Supplier
D. Vehicle
E. Customers
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.6 In the stock projection worksheet (SPW), where do you see the demand planning results for
secondary distribution from SAP APO?
A. What-if column
B. Simulated schedule
C. Rack forecast column
D. Planning documents
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is an exchange contract?
A. An agreement between 2 oil companies to exchange products at different locations
B. An agreement between 2 oil companies to exchange equipment at different locations
C. An agreement between 2 oil companies to exchange production resources
D. An agreement between 2 oil companies to exchange the use of storage location facilities
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which event triggers the calculation of excise duty?
A. Bulk shipment
B. Goods movement
C. Reservation
D. Outbound delivery
Answer: B

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NO.1 Your development group wants to automate the configuration, deployment and subsequent
updating of a multi-tier app they are developing. Which of the following products will allow
development to do this?
A. vFabric Hyperic
B. vFabric Application Director
C. vCloud Connector
D. vCloud Director
Answer: B

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Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/vCloud-Suite-Pricing-Packaging-Whitepaper.pdf (page
5)

NO.2 You have successfully completed the initial deployment of your company's cloud. Now
management wants to make sure everything continues to run well and that you are meeting all of
your SLAs. Which vCloud Suite software component will best help you do this?
A. vCenter Automation Center
B. vCloud Management Assistant
C. vSphere Management Assistant Appliance
D. vCenter Operations Management Suite
Answer: D

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Explanation:
http://virtualizationreview.com/articles/2011/04/26/get-started-with-vcenteroperations.aspx

NO.3 If you are trying to find out if you have a load-based performance issue, which of the following
metrics is significant in a virtual environment but, generally, not in a physical environment?
A. Physical RAM over-commitment, as VMware's hypervisor has technologies for dealing with this
B. Physical CPU over-commitment, because of the VMkernel SMP scheduler
C. Idle VMs (when compared to their equivalent idle physical servers in a physical environment)
D. Application network throughput to a remote office
Answer: C

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NO.4 Management is concerned that keeping track of chargeable costs may overwhelm
Chargeback's ability to keep up in a rapidly growing environment. You assure them Chargeback will
be able to handle this growth due to which of the following architectural components?
A. Statistic Modules
B. Data Collectors
C. Data Collection Appliances
D. Chargeback Plug-ins
Answer: B

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Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&extern
alId=2033009

NO.5 You are explaining to your manager how vCloud Director helps ensure that each organization in
your company has access to QA-approved VM images only. What vCloud Director object only allows
your users access to QA-approved VMs?
A. Org vDC
B. Configured datastore with VMs in OVF format
C. vCenter Template
D. Published Catalog
Answer: B

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Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-
esxvcenter/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.vmadmin.doc_41/vsp_vm_guide/working_with_ovf_templat
es/t _import_a_virtual_appliance.html

NO.6 Your small startup does not have a budget for capital equipment. What type of cloud would
initially best suit your needs?
A. Private cloud
B. Public cloud
C. Organization cloud
D. Hybrid cloud
Answer: B

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Reference: http://www.aerohive.com/pdfs/Aerohive-Whitepaper-Public-or-Private-Cloud.pdf (page
2, see public cloud service overview)

NO.7 Your organization has decided it needs to use a hybrid cloud. During the weekly staff meeting, a
colleague asks why the decision to use a hybrid cloud was chosen. What do you tell them?
A. You are a small company and do not want to deal with your own datacenter and equipment
B. Your development team periodically enters high demand test cycles
C. You have multiple physical sites all using their own local datacenters
D. You have a mixture of physical and virtual servers
Answer: B

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Reference: http://www.interoute.com/cloud-article/what-hybrid-cloud

NO.8 Your development team has informed you that they frequently run tests which require three
VMs and take two days to run. When the tests are complete, there is no further need to keep the
VMs or the resources they have been consuming. Which of the following products would best help
you manage the requirements of this test environment?
A. vCloud Director
B. vFabric Suite
C. vCenter Orchestrator
D. vCloud Automation Center
Answer: D

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NO.1 When creating a flexible volume, which attribute determines the volume's position in the
namespace?
A. Aggregate
B. SVM
C. Junction path
D. Export policy
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Volumes are associated with one Storage Virtual Machine (SVM).The SVM is a virtual
managemententity, or server, that consolidates various cluster resources into a single manageable
unit. When youcreate a volume, you specify the SVM it is associated with. The type of the volume
(FlexVol volumeor Infinite Volume) is determined by an immutable SVM attribute.
Volumes have a language. The language of the volume determines the character set Data ONTAPuses
to display file names and data for that volume. The default value for the language of the volumeis the
language of the SVM.
Volumes depend on their associated aggregates for their physical storage; they are not
directlyassociated with any concrete storage objects, such as disks or RAID groups. If the
clusteradministrator has assigned specific aggregates to an SVM, then only those aggregates can be
used toprovide storage to the volumes associated with that SVM. This impacts volume creation, and
alsocopying and moving FlexVol volumes between aggregates.

NO.2 A storage administrator creates two volumes, vol1 located in aggr1 and vol2 located in aggr2.
Junction paths for both of them are /vol1 and /vol2. The administrator performs a "volume move"
operation and moved vol1 from aggr1 to aggr2. Which statement is true?
A. The junction path changed for vol1 but not vol2.
B. The junction path changed for vol2 but not vol1.
C. The junction path changed for both vol1 and vol2.
D. The junction path does not change for both vol1 and vol2.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which NFS resources can be exported?
A. Volume
B. Subnet
C. Directory
D. Qtrees
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 When viewing the output of the sysstat -f 1 command, which three fields are part of the total
number of operations per second? (Choose three.)
A. CIFS
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. FCP
E. SnapMirror
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 What are two functions of the Flash Translation Layer? (Choose two.)
A. It mirrors writes to the alternate controller.
B. It maps pages to logical blocks.
C. It manages component wear.
D. It supports high availability.
E. It defines the write cliff.
Answer: B,C

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Reference:http://drona.csa.iisc.ernet.in/~gopi/west10/goodson.pdf(page 1&2)

NO.6 Which two statements are TRUE of moving a volume? (Choose two)
A. All writes from an NFS client to the volume continue
B. The Snapshot copies of the volume are orphaned and then deleted
C. The volume's position in the namespace is unaffected
D. All NAS protocol writes to the volume are interrupted
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 CIFS clients can resolve symbolic links created by NFS clients on the storage system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two statements about hard and soft zoning are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Soft zones separate devices at the name service level.
B. Hard zoning physically restricts access to only members of that zone.
C. Soft zones physically restrict access to only members of that zone.
D. Hard zones allow physical movement of cables to different ports on the switch.
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 On a system running the KDE Display Manager, when is the /etc/kde4/kdm/Xreset script
automatically executed?
A. When KDM starts
B. When a user's X session exits
C. When KDM crashes
D. When X is restarted
E. When X crashes
Answer: B

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
The ________ command is used to add a group to the system.
Answer: groupadd, /usr/sbin/groupadd

NO.3 What output will the command seq 10 produce?
A. A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B. The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C. The numbers 0 through 9 with one number per line.
D. The number 10 to standard output.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A French user has installed the French language pack, but currencies are still being displayed
with a leading '$' sign in his spreadsheets. What must be done to fix this?
A. Alter the locale.
B. Set the timezone correctly.
C. Edit /etc/currency.
D. Reinstall the French language pack.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What benefit does an alias in bash provide?
A. It provides faster lookups for commands in the system directory.
B. It creates a local copy of a file from another directory.
C. It hides what command you are running from others.
D. It allows a string to be substituted for the first word of a simple command.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is pool.ntp.org?
A. A deprecated feature for maintaining system time in the Linux kernel
B. A website which provides binary and source packages for the OpenNTPD project
C. A virtual cluster of various timeservers
D. A community website used to discuss the localization of Linux
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the main difference between the batch and at commands?
A. The batch command will run multiple times.The at command will only run once.
B. The batch command will run when system load is low. The at command runs at a specific time.
C. The at command reads commands from standard input. The batch command requires a command
line argument.
D. The at command e-mails results to the user. The batch command logs results to syslog.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following describes the Linux ping packet or datagram?
A. IP packet with a packet type
B. ICMP packet with a message type
C. ICMP packet with a payload
D. UDP datagram with a protocol type
E. UDP datagram with a payload
Answer: B

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2015年4月27日星期一

CCA-500 Real Dumps, CCD-410 Exam Cost, CCB-400 PDF VCE


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Test information:
  • Number of questions: 47
  • Time allowed in minutes: 75
  • Required passing score: 78%
  • Languages: English, Japanese
Related certifications:

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NO.1 Which utility is on the OS X Recovery partition?
A. Firmware Password Utility
B. Boot Camp Assistant
C. Activity Monitor
D. Console
Answer: A

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NO.2 You want to manage configuration profiles on a Mac that has Mavericks installed, but the
Profiles preferences icon is NOT present in the System Preferences window. What is a likely
explanation?
A. There are no profiles installed on the Mac.
B. You are not logged in as an administrator user.
C. Profiles have been disabled in the Security & Privacy pane of the Mac.
D. The Mac is not enrolled with Profile Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which step is required in order to enable the management of OS X Server via Server app on a
client Mac?
A. On the client, open Server app, select the server, click Settings, and select "Allow remote
loginusing SSH."
B. On the client Mac, open the Sharing pane of System Preferences, and select Remote Management.
C. On the server, open Server app, select the server, click Settings, and select "Allow
remoteadministration using Server."
D. On the server, open the Sharing pane of System Preferences, and select Remote Management.
Answer: C

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NO.4 If you click Delete User in the dialog shown above, what will happen to James White's home
folder?
A. "Deleted" will be appended to the home folder name, and its permissions will be changed to allow
administrator user access only.
B. "Deleted" will be appended to the home folder name, and it will be archived in Time Machine in a
compressed and encrypted file.
C. It will be deleted immediately, without being moved to the Trash.
D. It will be moved to the Trash.
Answer: C

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NO.5 If you click Enable User for the Logan White account, what is the effect?
A. FileVault 2 is enabled immediately for the Logan White account, and FileVault begins encrypting
the Logan White home folder.
B. You are prompted immediately to enter the login password for the Logan White account, after
which, Logan White will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the computer.
C. You are prompted immediately to enter an administrator password, after which, the user of the
Logan White account will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the computer.
D. At next login, the user of the Logan White account will be prompted to enter the login
password,after which, the user will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the
computer.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Pat is a member of the employees group. You have assigned permissions to a folder as shown in
the screenshot. What access does Pat have to the folder?
A. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.
B. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
C. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
D. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In Server app, which procedure will configure OS X Server to let members of a specific group
use the Messages services?
A. Select the messages service, click the Users and Groups tab, and then select the group, and click
OK.
B. Select Groups, then select the group, and from the Action pop-up menu, choose "Edit Access to
Service". Select the Messages checkbox, and click OK.
C. Select the server, click Access, and then click the Services button. Select Messages in the Services
list, click "Allow only users and groups below," click Add (+) to add the group, and then click done.
D. Select the server, click Settings, and then click the Services button. Select Messages in the Services
list, click Allow Access, click Add (+) to add the group, and click OK
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is TRUE of file and folder permissions in the Finder in OS X Mavericks?
A. A user with Write-only permissions to a folder can delete any file in that folder.
B. A user with Read-only permissions to a folder CANNOT rename any files in that folder.
C. A user with Write-only permissions to a folder can rename any file in that folder.
D. A user with Read-only permissions to a folder CANNOT view any files in that folder.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which two components comprise the Symantec Enterprise Vault 11.x for Exchange Directory?
(Select two.)
A. Directory Fingerprint database
B. Directory Service
C. Directory SQL database
D. Directory Administration Role
E. Directory Provisioning Task
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) implementation has been running for five years. New Vault
Store partitions are created as the old Vault Store partitions become full, which is approximately
every six months. The retention category is set for three years and Storage Expiry runs regularly. The
open Vault Store partition is now full and all available storage devices are in use.
How should this issue be addressed with minimal impact on the EV server?
A. set the current Vault Store Partition to Ready
B. set the first Vault Store status to Ready
C. open the first Vault Store Partition again
D. migrate items older than six months
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which PowerShell script (cmdlet) should an administrator use to generate backup mode
commands for the Symantec Enterprise Vault 11.x environment?
A. Create-Backup.ps1
B. Execute-Backup.ps1
C. Run-Backup.ps1
D. Transform-Backup.ps1
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator is preparing to move the Symantec Enterprise Vault 11.x for Exchange (EV)
server to new hardware. The EV indexes and vault stores have been backed up.
Which two customized components of EV should be backed up and available for the move? (Select
two.)
A. the License File
B. Vault Cache Location
C. Configuration.exe.config
D. Mailbox .msg files in \Program Files (x86)\Enterprise Vault
E. Server Cache Location
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which Office Mail App deployment PowerShell command requires the presence of a Manifest
File to be executed successfully?
A. Get-App
B. Set-App
C. Disable-App
D. New-App
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator has configured Exchange journal archiving and Exchange mailbox archiving in
the same Vault Store Group. The administrator wants to take advantage of optimized single instance
storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault 11.x for Exchange.
Where must the administrator configure the sharing level to achieve this?
A. on the Vault Store properties
B. on the Vault Store partition properties
C. on the Vault Store group properties
D. on the Enterprise Vault server properties
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Enterprise Vault client interface displays and provides access to more than one user's
archive, if permissions are properly set on the archive?
A. Local Cache
B. Content Cache
C. Virtual Vault
D. Shared Vault
Answer: C

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NO.8 A single Vault Store can contain a number of Partitions, which can be on different storage types
.
On which two storage types can vault store partitions be placed? (Select two.)
A. NAS with NFS
B. NAS with CIFS
C. EXT3
D. Content-Addressable Storage
E. HPFS
Answer: B,D

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2015年4月23日星期四

C_TCRM20_71 Latest Dumps, C_GRCAC_10 Practice Test, C_TB1200_90 Actual Test

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NO.1 Which process steps should you perform when you define a workflow-related MSMP rule?
(Choose two)
A. Save a bottom expression.
B. Select a result data object.
C. Select result parameters.
D. Save condition parameters.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following actions in Business Role Management require a connection to a target
system? (Choose three)
A. Generation
B. Authorization maintenance (actions and permissions)
C. Risk analysis
D. Approval
E. Testing
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following jobs do you have to schedule to collect Firefighter session information?
A. GRAC_SPM_LOG_ARCHIVING
B. GRAC_SPM_WORKFLOW_SYNC
C. GRAC_SPM_LOG_SYNC_UPDATE
D. GRAC_SPM_CLEANUP
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does assigning the Logical Group (SOD-LOG) type to a connector group allow you to do?
A. Run a cross-system analysis.
B. Use the connector group for transports to the target system.
C. Monitor the target system.
D. Use the connector group as a business role management landscape.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which configuration parameters determine the content of the log generated by the SPM Log
Synch job? (Choose three)
A. Enable Risk Change log (1002)
B. Enable Authorization Logging (1100)
C. Retrieve System log (4004)
D. Retrieve OS Command log (4006)
E. Retrieve Audit log (4005)
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 You have identified some risks that need to be defined as cross-system risks. How do you
configure your system to enable cross-system risk analysis?
A. 1. Set the analysis scope of the function to cross-system.
2.Create cross-system type connectors.
3.Assign the corresponding connectors to the appropriate connector group.
4.Generate rules.
B. 1. Set the analysis scope of the risk to cross-system.
2.Create cross-system type connectors.
3.Assign the corresponding connectors to the appropriate connector group.
4.Generate rules.
C. 1. Set the analysis scope of the risk to cross-system.
2.Create a cross-system type connector group.
3.Assign the corresponding connectors to the connector group.
4.Generate rules.
D. 1. Set the analysis scope of the function to cross-system.
2.Create a cross-system type connector group.
3.Assign the corresponding connectors to the connector group.
4.Generate rules.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What data is synchronized when you run the GRAC_REPOSITORY_OBJECT_SYNC report?
(Choose three)
A. Profiles
B. Roles
C. Role usage
D. PFCG authorizations
E. Users
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Which of the following are rule types used in MSMP workflow? (Choose three)
A. Web Service rule
B. ABAP Class-Based rule
C. Function Module-Based rule
D. BRFplus rule
E. ABAP User Exit-Based rule
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NO.1 A service is created in IBM Security Systems Identity Manager (ISIM) for IBM Directory
Integrator (IDI) data feed.
Which field in the ISIM service form is used to match the IDI data feed?
A. A unique identifier of the service
B. Name attribute in the service
C. The name of the service
D. The naming context
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which IBM Security Identity Manager properties file contains SSO settings?
A. enroleStartup.properties
B. enRole.properties
C. sdo.properties
D. ui.properties
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSRMWJ_6.0.0.2/com.ibm.isim.doc_6.
0.0.2/trouble/cpt/cpt_ ic_trouble_customization_problems.htm?lang=en

NO.3 Which interface needs to be implemented to create a custom password generator?
A. com.ibm.tivoli.itim.passwordrules.PasswordGenerator
B. com.ibm.passwordrules.PasswordGenerator
C. generator.ibm.tivoli.itim.CustomGenerator
D. com.ibm.passwordrules.Rule
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSRMWJ_6.0.0.2/com.ibm.isim.doc_6.
0.0.2/admin/tsk/tsk_i c_admin_pwdrules_customgenerator.htm?lang=cs

NO.4 When upgrading IBM Security Identity Manager (ISIM) adapters that run on the Windows
platform which statement below is accurate?
A. Multiple ISIM adapters running on a Windows server can be upgraded at different times because
there is no dependency between the adapters.
B. Multiple ISIM adapters running on a Windows server must all be upgraded simultaneously because
of the sharing of DLLs.
C. Multiple ISIM adapters running on a Windows server all have to be uninstalled prior to installing
the ISIM version 6 versions.
D. Multiple ISIM adapters running on a Windows server are no longer supported with ISIM version 6.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In a Websphere cluster configured with default file locations, where is the SystemOut.log for a
particular application server?
A. <profile_root>/<cellname>/<nodename>/<servemame>/logs
B. <profile_root>/<nodename>/<cellname>/<servername>/logs
C. <profile_root>/logs/<servername>
D. <profile_root>/<servemame>/logs
Answer: C

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NO.6 The identity feed for IBM Security Identity Manager (ISIM) utilizes IBM Tivoli Directory
Integrator (ITDI) and the connector in the assembly line that communicates to ISIM has been setup in
Update mode.
Which of the following would be accurate if the identity coming from ITDI was NOT in ISIM?
A. The ITDI assembly line would error because the assembly line was configured in update mode so
adding new identities would not be supported.
B. A ITDI connector in Update mode would only support updating an existing identity so adding
identities would not be a possibility.
C. The identity entry would be treated as an add as long as there was not an Override Add assembly
line hook enabled.
D. The identity entry would be skipped since the identity did not already exist in ISIM.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What change is needed in the Directory Server when a custom person entity is created in IBM
Security Identity Manager?
A. There is no change needed in the Directory Server for new custom person entities.
B. A new container needs to be created in the Directory Server.
C. Directory object class and attributes to reflect the new entity.
D. A new user entry needs be created in the Directory Server.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4J57_6.2.2.6/com.ibm.tivoli.fim.doc_6226/sse/
usc_def_c ustom_attribute/USCAttributecannotbeadded.html

NO.8 When gathering requirements for a Provisioning Policy design, which type of owner is used for
orphan accounts?
A. An owner with a contractor email address
B. An account manager
C. An account owner
D. A group owner
Answer: B

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NO.1 -- Exhibit -
-- Exhibit --
Click the Exhibit button.
Which change will eliminate the symptom in the performance chart shown in the exhibit?
A. Set CPU shares to High
B. Set CPU affinity for the virtual machine
C. Migrate the VM to a host that is less utilized
D. Add a CPU to the virtual machine
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator is updating a program running on a virtual machine. The update file has been
downloaded as an .iso file and placed on a shared NFS datastore. An attempt to mount the .iso file to
the virtual machine fails, but subsequent testing shows that the .iso file can be mounted to a virtual
machine running on another ESXi host.
Which step can be taken to enable access to the .iso file for the affected virtual machine?
A. Reboot all ESXi hosts in the cluster where the affected virtual machine is running.
B. Refresh all datastores on the ESXi host running the affected VM.
C. Rescan all datastores on the ESXi host running the affected VM.
D. Unmount the volume from the ESXi host running the affected VM, and then re-add as a new
datastore.
Answer: B

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passwords alone. A certificate has been procured from a Certificate Authority, and smart cards have
been purchased for the users.
Which three tasks must the desktop administrator perform to prepare Active Directory (AD)? (Choose
three.)
A. add the user principal names to the Trusted Root Certification Authorities group
B. add the root certificate to the Enterprise NTAuth store in AD
C. add the root certificate to the Trusted Root Hierarchy in AD
D. add user principal names to the AD accounts of users
E. add the root certificate to the Trusted Root Certification Authorities group policy in AD
Answer: B,D,E

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failovers may occur.
What is the expected length of time that a Windows 2008 virtual machine storage I/O will pause
during a path failover?
A. 0 to 30 seconds
B. 90 to 120 seconds
C. 60 to 90 seconds
D. 30 to 60 seconds
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are three required permissions that need to be assigned to the View Composer user
account? (Choose three.)
A. Create User Accounts
B. Create Computer Objects
C. Delete Group Accounts
D. Delete Computer Objects
E. Write All Properties
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 Which two platforms are supported by VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5
environment? (Choose two.)
A. VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
B. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows XP Pro 64-bit
C. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows Server 2003 64-bit
D. VMware vCenter 5.0 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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Which three Windows Firewall ports must be pre-configured prior to installation to enable remote
access? (Choose three.)
A. 443
B. 3389
C. 4001
D. 4172
E. 8009
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 Which of the following indicates the subjects that can use them?
A. Access control list
B. Audit policy
C. Intrusion detection system
D. Single sign-on
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Access control list indicates what subjects can use them. Access Control List (ACL) is the most
commonly used object in Cisco IOS. It filters packets or network traffic by controlling whether routed
packets are forwarded or blocked at the router's interfaces. According to the criteria specified within
the access lists, router determines whether the packets to be forwarded or dropped. Access control
list criteria could be the source or destination address of the traffic or other information. The types of
Cisco ACLs are Standard IP, Extended IP, IPX, Appletalk, etc. Answer option B is incorrect. Audit policy
defines the type of security events that will be logged for the servers of a domain or for an individual
computer. It does not indicate what subjects can use them. Answer option C is incorrect. An Intrusion
detection system (IDS) is software and/or hardware designed to detect unwanted attempts at
accessing, manipulating, and/or disabling of computer systems, mainly through a network, such as
the Internet. These attempts may take the form of attacks, as examples, by crackers, malware and/or
disgruntled employees. An IDS cannot directly detect attacks within properly encrypted traffic. An
intrusion detection system is used to detect several types of malicious behaviors that can
compromise the security and trust of a computer system. This includes network attacks against
vulnerable services, data driven attacks on applications, host based attacks such as privilege
escalation, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive files, and malware (viruses, trojan horses, and
worms). Answer option D is incorrect. Single sign-on is a process that enables a user with a domain
account to log on to a network once, using a password or smart card, and to gain access to multiple
computers in the domain without being prompted to log in again.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Access_control_list"

NO.2 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCMCIA card
B. A PCI Express card
C. Upgrade is not possible
D. An AGP Card
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Video cards in laptops are built into the motherboard and cannot be upgraded.
Answer option D is incorrect. An AGP card is an older type of video card for PC's.
What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? Hide
AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support.
It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video
performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second.
Answer options B and A are incorrect. Both are valid expansion cards for laptops, however
the laptop video card is not on an expansion slot.
Reference: http://www.tomshardware.com/forum/84345-33-video-card-laptop

NO.3 HOTSPOT
Identify the Ethernet port in the image given below.
Answer:

NO.4 Which of the following internal busses are used for expansion cards?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PCI
B. SATA
C. PCI Express
D. ISA
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation:
The following internal busses are used for expansion cards: PCI Express PCI ISA What is PCI Express
(PCIe)? PCI Express (PCIe), also known as 3rd Generation I/O (3GIO), is a type of computer bus. It is a
new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than PCI and AGP slots. It uses two low voltage
differential pairs, at 2.5Gb/s in each direction. It is designed to replace PCI and AGP expansion slots.
The bus is available in several different bus widths: x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, and x32. PCIe is able to
transfer data in both directions at a time. PCIe hardware will work on operating systems that support
PCI. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance, 32-bit or 64-
bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements, such as the display
subsystem. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that
provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. A later version
of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. Answer option B is incorrect. SATA is used for hard disk
drive and CD/DVD drives. What is SATA? The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface
for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives.
SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as
reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It
is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices
support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for
enhanced performance.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_hardware"

NO.5 Your customer is using Windows Vista and complains about the quality of picture he is getting
on his monitor. You find that you cannot adjust the refresh rate or the resolution. What is the most
likely cause?
A. The video card is not recognized by Windows.
B. The monitor is not compatible with the video card.
C. The video card has failed.
D. The video card does not have enough video RAM.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
When Windows does not recognize the video card, it gives a set of simplified default
settings for refresh rate, resolution, etc.
Answer option B is incorrect. As long as the monitor can plug into the card, it is compatible.
Answer option C is incorrect. If the video card had failed, there would have been no picture
at all on the monitor screen.
Answer option D is incorrect. Lack of sufficient video RAM would just prevent certain
graphics from being displayed.
Reference: http://www.technibble.com/troubleshooting-video-cards-problems-and-solutions/

NO.6 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and
provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
B. Audio/modem riser
C. Riser card
D. Secure Digital (SD) card
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to
connect additional expansion cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards.
With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the
expansion cards connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. Answer
option B is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known as an AMR slot, is an expansion slot.
It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon personal computers. It
was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such as sound cards
and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins each, making a total of 46 pins.
Answer option A is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device
developed by Intel. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such
as modems and audio devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multichannel audio, phone-line-based
networking, and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference
through the physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication
systems. Answer option D is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format
used in portable devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards
are based on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards.
Generally an SD card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24
mm x 2.1 mm, but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the
thinner MMC cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards
are also available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many
connectivity ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riser_card"

NO.7 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet
contents?
A. Content filter control
B. Bandwidth control
C. Usage management tool
D. Monitoring control
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Content filter control is a type of parental control that is used to limit access to the Internet content.
Answer option D is incorrect. Monitoring control is a type of parental control that is used to track
locations and activities when using the device. Answer option C is incorrect. Usage management tool
is a type of parental control that allows parents to enforce learning time into child computing time.
Answer option B is incorrect. There is no parental control such as bandwidth control.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parental_controls "

NO.8 Which of the following is the default resolution for a VGA monitor?
A. 800x600-pixels
B. 1024x768-pixels
C. 320x200-pixels
D. 640x480-pixels
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Video Graphic Array (VGA) monitors have a default resolution of 640x480-pixels.
This is known as standard VGA resolution. Although computers typically use this resolution by
default, you can get better resolution using a specifically designed video driver for the installed
adapter. Answer options A, C, and B are incorrect. Super VGA monitors have a default resolution of
800x600- pixels. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a
PC used for connecting monitors.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 21 Multimedia"