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Exam Code: C_TSCM62_66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Sales and Distribution, ERP 6.0 EhP6
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Exam Code: C_TBI30_73
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Business Intelligence with SAP BW 7.3 and SAP BI 4.0
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NO.1 What steps are included in the cash sales process?(Choose two)
A. When you save the cash sales, the system prints a document - BA00 - that can be given to th
e customer as an order confirmation.
B. When you save the cash sales, the system prints a document that can be given to the customer as
an invoice. This document is controlled with output type RD03.
C. When you save the cash sales, the system automatically creates a delivery.
D. When you save the cash sales, there is no need for a delivery and goods issue posting because the
customer receives the products immediately.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Topic11,Sales process

NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding partner determination are correct?(Choose two)
A. The origin of partners that are automatically determined during the creation of sales documents is
controlled using a condition type.
B. When you create a standard order, the permitted partners are automatically copied from the
customer master to the document.
C. In a partner determination procedure, all allowed partner functions are listed.
D. Partner determination procedures can be defined in sales documents at header, item, and
schedule-line level.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 You have set up condition type K029 as a gross-weight-calculated discount based on the
material group. You now want to implement this for ordered materials belonging to the same
material group. The system should accumulate the gross weight of the items to determine the scale
rate.
For the required weight accumulation, which of the following must you use for condition type K029?
A. Group condition
B. Condition supplements
C. Scale basis
D. Scale formula
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following document flows describe possible standard sales processes?(Choose
two)
A. Inquiry -> quotation -> value contract -> order with reference to the value contract -> invoice ->
accounting document
B. Invoice correction request with reference to a standard order -> delivery -> transfer order -> post
goods issue -> invoice -> accounting document
C. Inquiry -> quotation -> order -> shipment -> transfer order -> post goods issue -> invoice ->
accounting document
D. Standard order with reference to a quotation -> delivery -> transfer order -> post goods issue ->
invoice -> accounting document
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Your company wants to have a new condition record for freight costs.
The condition type should consider the gross weight of all the order items and handle the following
scale:
- From 0 kg - 8 EUR
- From 1 kg - 12 EUR
- From 5 kg - 16 EUR
- From 10 kg - 20 EUR
Which of the following do you have to configure in the condition type to meet this
requirement?(Choose two)
A. Set the Exclusion indicator to net price.
B. Set the calculation type to fixed amount.
C. Select the Header condition checkbox.
D. Select the Group condition checkbox.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 How does SAP make new functions of the SAP ERP system available to the customer?
A. Via enhancement packages
B. Via Support Packages
C. Via best practices
D. Via add-ons
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Topic4,Billing (basics)

NO.7 When you create a new sales order, which master data is automatically copied to the sales
order?(Choose two)
A. The incoterms from the sales area data of the sold-to party
B. The price list from the general data of the bill-to-party
C. The terms of payment from the company code data
D. The agreement on partial deliveries from the sales area data of the ship-to party
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 If the material entered in the sales order is not available, how is the user alerted to this
situation?
A. The availability control screen is displayed.
B. The system automatically sets the order quantity to zero.
C. The incompletion log displays the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
D. The system highlights the schedule line.
Answer: A

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provisioned.
Which two methods would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Use Storage vMotion and change the disk type to Flat.
B. Use the Inflate option in the Datastore Properties.
C. Use Storage vMotion and change the disk type to Thick Provisioned Lazy Zeroed.
D. Use Storage vMotion and change the disk type to Thick Provisioned Eager Zeroed.
Answer: C,D

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A. Enforce traffic bandwidth limit on the overall vDS set of dvUplinks.
B. Limits enforces maximum throughput control on a virtual machine.
C. Load based teaming efficiently uses a vDS set of dvUplinks for network capacity.
D. Isolation allows domination by any one traffic flow.
E. Relative shares fairly allocates available bandwidth among multiple flows.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Which functions can be performed with the Plug-in Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Enable an installed plug-in
B. Remove permissions for a plug-in
C. View the status of installed plug-ins
D. Uninstall a plug-in
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What is the name of the group policy setting that must be configured to enable location based
printing?
A. AutoConnect Map Additional Printers for VMware View
B. Automated Printing Settings for VMware View
C. Server Based Printing for VMware View
D. Thinprint Location Based Printing for VMware View
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Power and Suspend buttons for a virtual machine can be configured from the Options tab
of the virtual machine.
What are the two default actions that are configured for these buttons? (Choose two.)
A. The Suspend button suspends the VM though the guest OS.
B. The Power button does a graceful shutdown.
C. The Power button does a hard shutdown.
D. The Suspend button suspends the VM though ESXi.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 An Administrator is upgrading to View Connection Server 5.x from a previous release.
Which component is omitted from installation automatically during an upgrade?
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two steps should an administrator take to ensure optimal performance when creating a
Windows XP desktop image to be used as a template? (Choose two.)
A. Set the SCSI controller to LSI Logic
B. Configure PAE memory extension
C. Align the partition in the desktop .vmdk file
D. Set the network adapter to E1000
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A ThinApp administrator needs to capture an application that leverages ODBC connections.
Which step should the administrator take during the ThinApp capture and build process to enable
this functionality inside the ThinApp package?
A. configure the ODBC connections before starting the capture process
B. configure the ODBC connections during the capture process
C. configure the ODBC connections as an upgrade patch to a completed ThinApp application
D. configure the ODBC connections outside the capture process on the client workstations
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, Solution Design
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NO.1 An organization has a widely distributed online environment, where applications are
connected via
WebSphere MQ messaging. A business requirement is brought forward that certain mission
critical
applications record audit trail data which is to be collected in a central location. No
information can be lost.
A central data warehouse must be loaded daily with this information as soon as possible after
end of
business. Which of the following proposed solutions is best in terms of the requirement,
reliability and
overall performance? The audit trail data is:
A. written to a file on the local file system and transmitted to the central audit trail server via
reliable file
transfer over WebSphere MQ.
B. sent as a persistent WebSphere MQ message and forwarded to the queue manager of the
central
server asynchronously.
C. inserted into a central database table via a remote access database client under control of
the local
WebSphere MQ transaction.
D. inserted into a local database table under two phase commit using WebSphere MQ as the
transaction
manager and a bulk update is performed at end of day.
Answer: B

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NO.2 In designing a solution with availability in mind, the designer is considering the following
two
alternatives, one using a cluster queue and the other using a shared queue. In each
scenario, Queue
Managers QMA and QMB will both be capable of running Application A. In the first scenario,
Application A
will run on QMA and QMB on Windows accessing cluster queue QA. In the second scenario,
Application A
will run on QMA and QMB on z/OS accessing shared queue QA. Which of the following
describes the
availability scenarios in the situation where QMA fails?
A. For Windows, the delivered messages on QA that Application A on QMA did not get to
process are
available for processing by Application A on QMB
B. For z/OS, the delivered messages on QA that Application A on QMA did not get to process
are
available for processing by Application A on QMB
C. For Windows, messages from QA that were in flight on QMA when it failed are made
available for
processing on QMB
D. For z/OS, messages from QA that were in flight on QMA when it failed are unavailable for
processing
by QMB
Answer: B

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NO.3 A new WebSphere MQ application with high volume requirements is being designed
to run on Solaris.
The solution designer is concerned about the performance of the application. The
WebSphere MQ for
Solaris V7 Performance Evaluation Report SupportPac provides all but one of the following
types of
information to the solution designer. Which is NOT discussed in this document?
A. Suggestions for tuning WebSphere MQ
B. Information that can be used to size the company new applicationInformation that can be
used to size
the company? new application
C. Evaluation of the relative cost of one WebSphere MQ API vs. another in different
scenarios
D. Evaluation of the relative cost of persistent messages vs. nonpersistent messages in
different
scenarios
Answer: C

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NO.4 An application is required to retrieve rows from a relational database table and send
them across
WebSphere MQ to a remote queue manager, where a receiving application consumes them.
After a
successful MQPUT of a message, the corresponding row is to be deleted from the database.
It is intended
to run this application using the free WebSphere MQ Client. The delivery of each message is
to be
guaranteed. Which of the following is true about this implementation?
A. It cannot be done using the free WebSphere MQ Client; the Extended Transactional Client
is required,
since two phase commits are needed for this solution.
B. It cannot be done using the free WebSphere MQ Client; a local queue manager is required
to support
the guaranteed delivery of the messages.
C. This solution can be implemented using the free WebSphere MQ Client, provided that the
receiving
application can recognize and handle repeated delivery of the same message.
D. This solution cannot be implemented using the free WebSphere MQ Client; persistent
messaging is not
supported by the free WebSphere MQ Client.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following should generally be avoided if an application is being designed
for optimal
efficiency?
A. Make messages nonpersistent if they do not need to be recoverable.
B. Code programs to open and close queues, or connect and disconnect from the queue
manager only
once, if the queues or connection will be used again.
C. Bundle the data to be transmitted into as few messages as possible (e.g., rather than
sending a
hundred 1MB messages, send one 100MB message).
D. Group a batch of messages within a unit of work where appropriate, so that they can be
committed all
at once (e.g., get and put messages under syncpoint and commit them in groups of 10, rather
than
committing them individually).
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which new feature in WebSphere MQ V7.0 needs to be taken into account when
WebSphere MQ
solutions are deployed into mixed z/OS and distributed environments?
A. Queue sharing groups are now available between z/OS and other platforms; however, at
least one
queue manager in the group must still be hosted on z/OS.
B. The use of WebSphere MQ Explorer for the administration of z/OS based queue
managers no longer
requires a license for the Client Attachment Feature (CAF) for a limited number of users.
C. WebSphere MQ Client applications from distributed environments can now directly
connect to z/OS
queue managers; the Client Attachment Feature (CAF) is no longer required.
D. A WebSphere MQ Client implementation on z/OS is now available, so that full WebSphere
MQ no
longer needs to be installed on all z/OS systems that want to participate in message queuing.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A solution designer is evaluating distribution scenarios and wants to understand the
circumstances
where messages are not delivered as expected. Which of the following are reasons that a
message is
placed on the DLQ?
A. A trigger monitor is unable to start the triggered program
B. The destination queue is full when the program puts the message to the local queue
C. The queue manager is quiescing when the program puts the message to the queue
D. A sending message channel agent is unable to perform data conversion when required for
the
message
E. The program tries to put a message to an invalid local queue
Answer: A D

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NO.8 A bus company is implementing a solution which will display in real-time the arrival
information of the
next bus on the bus stop sign. Each bus is sending information about its position at regular
intervals. What
is the best way of implementing this solution given that there is limited bandwidth for
communication? The
bus stop sign:
A. subscribes to messages published by the bus
B. queries a central system for bus position using SOAP over HTTP
C. replicates its own database every few minutes with a database stored on a central system
D. sends a message with a request every few minutes to a central system in order to query
bus position.
All replies are compressed.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and
provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
B. Audio/modem riser
C. Riser card
D. Secure Digital (SD) card
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to
connect additional expansion cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards.
With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the
expansion cards connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. Answer
option B is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known as an AMR slot, is an expansion slot.
It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon personal computers. It
was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such as sound cards
and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins each, making a total of 46 pins.
Answer option A is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device
developed by Intel. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such
as modems and audio devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multichannel audio, phone-line-based
networking, and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference
through the physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication
systems. Answer option D is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format
used in portable devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards
are based on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards.
Generally an SD card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24
mm x 2.1 mm, but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the
thinner MMC cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards
are also available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many
connectivity ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riser_card"

NO.2 Which of the following are used by FireWire 800 devices?
A. 6-pin connectors
B. 10-pin connectors
C. 9-pin connectors
D. 4-pin connectors
Answer: C

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Explanation:
FireWire 800 devices use 9-pin connectors at both ends of the cable. FireWire 400 devices can also be
connected to the FireWire 800 ports and vice versa by using an appropriate adapter cable. What are
FireWire ports? Hide FireWire ports are found on high-end computers and many new media centers.
They are also called IEEE 1394 ports. FireWire ports transfer data at a rate of 400 Mbps or 800 Mbps.
They are used primarily for video transfer from digital movie cameras. Answer options D and A are
incorrect. FireWire 400 devices use 4-pin or 6-pin connectors.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/FireWire "

NO.3 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet
contents?
A. Content filter control
B. Bandwidth control
C. Usage management tool
D. Monitoring control
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Content filter control is a type of parental control that is used to limit access to the Internet content.
Answer option D is incorrect. Monitoring control is a type of parental control that is used to track
locations and activities when using the device. Answer option C is incorrect. Usage management tool
is a type of parental control that allows parents to enforce learning time into child computing time.
Answer option B is incorrect. There is no parental control such as bandwidth control.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parental_controls "

NO.4 What is the maximum resolution that the WUXGA video technology supports?
A. 2048 x 1536
B. 1920 x 1200
C. 3840 x 2400
D. 1600 x 1200
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The WUXGA video technology supports the maximum resolution of 1920 x 1200. Where
1920 refers to horizontal pixels, and 1200 refers to vertical pixels. Answer option A is incorrect. The
QXGA video technology supports the maximum resolution of 2048 x 1536. Answer option D is
incorrect. UXGA stands for Ultra eXtended Graphics Array. It is a display standard that refers to video
adapters. This display standard is capable of displaying the resolution of 1600 x 1200 pixels. A UXGA
display provides four times more pixels than an 800 x 600 display. Answer option C is incorrect. The
WQUXGA video technology supports the maximum resolution of 3840 x 2400.
Reference: "http://www.computerhope.com/jargon/w/wuxga.htm"

NO.5 Which of the following is the default resolution for a VGA monitor?
A. 800x600-pixels
B. 1024x768-pixels
C. 320x200-pixels
D. 640x480-pixels
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Video Graphic Array (VGA) monitors have a default resolution of 640x480-pixels.
This is known as standard VGA resolution. Although computers typically use this resolution by
default, you can get better resolution using a specifically designed video driver for the installed
adapter. Answer options A, C, and B are incorrect. Super VGA monitors have a default resolution of
800x600- pixels. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a
PC used for connecting monitors.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 21 Multimedia"

NO.6 Which of the following processor states does not save power?
A. C2
B. C1
C. C3
D. C0
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The C0 processor state does not save power. It is an operational state.
Answer option B is incorrect. The C1 state is a powered down state, but the processor
takes action immediately on request. The C1 state uses less power than C0 state.
Answer option A is incorrect. The C2 state is also known as Stop-Clock. It uses less power
than C1 state. In this state, the processor takes a little longer time than C1 state to come in
action on the request of applications.
Answer option C is incorrect. The C3 state is also known as the sleep mode. In this state,
the processor cache is flushed. In this state, the processor takes a few seconds to be
available for action.

NO.7 Which of the following indicates the subjects that can use them?
A. Access control list
B. Audit policy
C. Intrusion detection system
D. Single sign-on
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Access control list indicates what subjects can use them. Access Control List (ACL) is the most
commonly used object in Cisco IOS. It filters packets or network traffic by controlling whether routed
packets are forwarded or blocked at the router's interfaces. According to the criteria specified within
the access lists, router determines whether the packets to be forwarded or dropped. Access control
list criteria could be the source or destination address of the traffic or other information. The types of
Cisco ACLs are Standard IP, Extended IP, IPX, Appletalk, etc. Answer option B is incorrect. Audit policy
defines the type of security events that will be logged for the servers of a domain or for an individual
computer. It does not indicate what subjects can use them. Answer option C is incorrect. An Intrusion
detection system (IDS) is software and/or hardware designed to detect unwanted attempts at
accessing, manipulating, and/or disabling of computer systems, mainly through a network, such as
the Internet. These attempts may take the form of attacks, as examples, by crackers, malware and/or
disgruntled employees. An IDS cannot directly detect attacks within properly encrypted traffic. An
intrusion detection system is used to detect several types of malicious behaviors that can
compromise the security and trust of a computer system. This includes network attacks against
vulnerable services, data driven attacks on applications, host based attacks such as privilege
escalation, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive files, and malware (viruses, trojan horses, and
worms). Answer option D is incorrect. Single sign-on is a process that enables a user with a domain
account to log on to a network once, using a password or smart card, and to gain access to multiple
computers in the domain without being prompted to log in again.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Access_control_list"

NO.8 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information, such as
Internet surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D. Worm
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Spyware is a program that takes partial control over a user's computer without user's permission.
Spyware programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet surfing habits,
and Web sites that the user has visited. Spyware programs can also interfere with the control of a
user's computer, such as installing additional software, redirecting Web browser activities, accessing
Web sites blindly, etc. Answer option C is incorrect. A honeypot is a term in computer terminology
used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized
use of information systems. Generally it consists of a computer, data, or a network site that appears
to be part of a network, but is actually isolated, and monitored, and which seems to contain
information or a resource of value to attackers. Answer option A is incorrect. The term malware
refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including spyware. Malware
is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner. Answer option D is
incorrect. A worm is a software program that uses computer networks and security holes to replicate
itself from one computer to another. It usually performs malicious actions, such as using the
resources of computers as well as shutting down computers. Reference.
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spyware"

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NO.1 Which of the following does Kerberos provide?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Accounting
C. Exchange
D. Authentication
Answer: D

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NO.2 A technician suspects invalid information in the local DNS cache of a workstation. Which of the
following commands can be used to clear this?
A. nslookup
B. ifconfig
C. dig
D. ipconfig
Answer: D

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NO.3 Hubs are differentiated from switches in that between the two, only hubs have:
A. A single collision domain.
B. A single broadcast domain.
C. Multiple collision domains.
D. Multiple broadcast domains.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is a Class A private IP address?
A. 4.2.2.2
B. 10.1.1.45
C. 169.254.9.15
D. 192.168.0.100
Answer: B

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NO.5 A network administrator notices that load balancing is not working properly on the web cluster
as previously configured. In speaking with management, a change to the IP
addressing scheme was made yesterday which possibly affected one member of the cluster. Due to
the timing of the events, the administrator theorizes that this change caused the problem. Which of
the following should the administrator do NEXT?
A. Escalate to the management team
B. Change the IP address back to its previous state
C. Test the theory by analyzing logs
D. Create a plan of action to present to management
Answer: C

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NO.6 When a loop occurs, which of the following STP components determines which port to disable?
A. Convergence
B. Root bridge
C. BPDU guard
D. MAC address
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following spreads out each of the individual wires of a UTP cable onto their own
metal connector?
A. BNC connection
B. 110 block
C. Plenum
D. LC connector
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following can be configured on a managed network switch to send real time alerts
to a technician?
A. SSID
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. Syslog
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following RAID levels should be selected for a large capacity file server that
requires MAXIMUM storage capacity and a reasonable degree of robustness?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following virtualization technologies can save time during provisioning?
A. Cloning
B. Snapshots
C. Clustering
D. Virtual memory
Answer: A

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NO.3 Due to slow backup response, an administrator installed a new driver for the SCSI card. After a
server reboot the device is not working properly. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Reboot the server and restore files using ASR.
B. In Device Manager, locate the device, and click Roll Back Driver at the driver tab.
C. Restore the driver from the previous backup tape.
D. Go to Device Manager, locate the device, and click Restore Previous Driver at the driver tab.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Users can only access external websites. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this
problem?
A. The incorrect gateway address is being provided to the workstation.
B. DHCP is not providing workstations with the proper subnet mask.
C. The DNS cache was cleared.
D. The internal zone was deleted.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following server types allows resolution of domain names to IP addresses?
A. DHCP server
B. DNS server
C. Web server
D. VLAN server
Answer: B

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following should they do to reclaim the space off the high performance server?
A. Audit the data
B. Delete the data
C. Back up the data
D. Archive the data
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator logs into a server and notices slow performance. While troubleshooting the
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following steps would allow the administrator to terminate that process?
A. Adding the 'Run as a service' permission to their account.
B. Running the kill utility.
C. Adding their account to the remote users group.
D. Ending the services.exe process then ending the runaway process.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following RAID levels would provide fault tolerance while also providing high
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A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.1 A customer needs an error message to be displayed when the internal order budget has been
exceeded by 15%. How can the customer achieve this?(Choose two)
A. By entering the budget profile in the order type.
B. By customizing the tolerance limits for the budget profile.
C. By activating availability control in the controlling area.
D. By entering the budget profile in the order master data.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 A company in a high-inflation country wants to valuate their finished products with actual costs
reflecting all the latest price variances. Which method do you recommend?
A. Use actual price determination in the material ledger
B. Use lowest-value determination of raw materials.
C. Activate FIFO valuation in the special ledger
D. Valuate all materials with LIFO valuation.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which planning transactions create secondary costs on the receivers?
(Choose two)
A. Plan assessment
B. Transfer of depreciations from Asset Accounting
C. Transfer of personnel cost from HR
D. Plan distribution
E. Activity input planning
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Your customer wants to see a P&L statement for profit centers by the cost-of-salesaccounting
approach. Which of the following is the minimum requirement?
A. Activate profitability analysis.
B. Create a derivation rule for the functional area.
C. Activate the scenario functional area in New GL.
D. Enter the functional area in the profit center master.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the advantage of using a key figure scheme in drilldown reports in profitability analysis?
A. The key figure scheme allows the calculating of lines with subtotals in a drill down report.
B. A key figure scheme allows for simultaneous access to different databases.
C. The key figure scheme allows quick access to predefined key figures in the database.
D. A key figure scheme improves the runtime of the drilldown report.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your New GL customer uses real-time reconciliation of CO and FI. The customer wants to show
the value flow of activity allocations between cost centers assigned to different profit centers. What
does the customer have to configure?(Choose two)
A. Execute the periodic transfer to profit center accounting.
B. Define a G/L reconciliation account for direct activity allocation.
C. Select profit center as a characteristic for real time reconciliation between CO and FI.
D. Carry out a reconciliation run for activities types in the new GL.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What is the SAP Solution Manager?
A. It is an own related database system that can be used as an alternative to databases from other
vendors.
B. It supports throughout the entire life-cycle, from the Business Blueprint to the configuration to
production processing.
C. It is an application that is part of the SAP Supply Chain Management application.
D. It is a robust and lean standard-based platform that enables you to develop Java and composite
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Answer: B

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NO.8 A company wants to use Profitability Analysis (CO-PA) to obtain an early analysis of their
anticipated profits.
Which functionality provides the best results?
A. Transfer the plan balance data from Fl to account-based CO-PA and use record type "F" for
analysis.
B. Analyze sales quotation as a detail value.
C. Transfer the plan data from the "Sales and operation planning" to costing-based CO-PA and use
record type "P" for analysis.
D. Transfer sales orders and quotations from SD to costing-based CO-PA and use record type "A" for
analysis.
E. Transfer sales orders and quotations from SD to account-based CO-PA and use record type "F" for
analysis.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER8 Scale-out Technical Sales Skills V1
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Exam Code: C2080-471
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NO.1 A customer is interested in migrating Little Endian (LE) Linux workloads to POWERS servers
running PowerKVM.
Which Linux distribution will satisfy the requirement?
A. Ubuntu
B. RedHat
C. CentOS
D. SUSE
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which components ofPowerKVM provide I / O virtualization ?
A. IPMI
B. virsh C .QEMU
C. Kimchi
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Power Systems tool uses published benchmark data to create a simple cost comparison
between Scale-out and x86 servers?
A. Quick Reference Tool
B. Workload Estimator Tool
C. TCA-TCO Seller Tool
D. Server Consolidation Tool
Answer: D

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NO.4 Compared with 720 quad-core , four -core S814 What added to the standard features to
improve RAS capabilities ?
A. RAID 0
B. Chipkill Memory
C. Support PCIe Hot
D. alternate processor recovery (Alternate Processor Recovery}
Answer: B

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NO.5 What benefit does the CAP I feature of POWER8 provide?
A. The ability to attach accelerators that have shared memory access that is coherent with the
system's processors.
B. An implementation of AME on a hardware accelerator.
C. The ability to dispatch multiple virtual machines on a single core at the same time.
D. An alternative to memory lock base synchronization.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which tape backup option is supported for migration from a POWER6 520 with a SCSI
attached external LTO-3 tape drive to a POWER8 S814, and is read compatible with LTO3?
A. Migrate the SCSI adapter to the S814 and attach it to an existing LTO-3 tape drive.
B. Add an SAS adapter and external LTO-5 tape drive.
C. Add an internal LTO-4 tape drive in the CEC.
D. Add an SAS adapter and external LTO-6 tape drive.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What provides a comparison of Power Systems to competitors for applications?
A. SPECint
B. RPE2
C. SPECfp
D. TPM
Answer: A

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NO.8 Dynamic partition migration , the following is required ?
A. PowerVM Enterprise Edition SAN disk system Virtual Ethernet
B. dedicated processor PowerVM Enterprise Edition Virtual Ethernet
C. dual VIO server PowerVM Enterprise Edition SAN attached disk Two virtual processors
D. dedicated processor Dual VIO server SAN disk system Virtual Ethernet
Answer: A

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Business Intelligence Platform 4.1
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NO.1 You are using SAP BusinessObjects Data Services as your ETL tool.
What is the next step required after you have created the DataStore and imported the metadata
from an SAP ERP system into SAP HANA?
A. Import data from the SAP ERP system into SAP HANA.
B. Create an SAP BusinessObjects Data Services job to migrate data to SAP HANA.
C. Import the metadata from SAP HANA into SAP BusinessObjects Data Services.
D. Create a connection in SAP BusinessObjects Data Services to the SAP ERP system.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have created SAP HANA information models from replicated SAP ECC data.
How can you compare the data of the replicated tables with the underlying ECC source data? (Choose
two)
A. Use the SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction SE16).
B. Use the Catalog node to open table contents.
C. Use transaction IUUC_REPL_CONTENT.
D. Use the Data Provisioning view from the Quick Launch.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What is the lowest level of granularity you can use in an analytic privilege?
A. A view
B. A column
C. An attribute value
D. An attribute
Answer: C

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NO.4 In SAP ERP there are more than 50,000 application tables. How do you determine the relevant
SAP ERP tables to replicate in SAP HANA and their dependencies?
A. Use SAP ERP Data Modeler (transaction SD11).
B. Use SAP ERP ABAP Dictionary Maintenance (transaction SE11).
C. Use the SAP ERP Tables and Indexes Monitor(transaction DB02).
D. Use SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction SE16).
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can you evaluate the speed of a calculation within the database? (Choose two)
A. Use the Data Preview function in the SAP HANA studio.
B. Execute a Web Intelligence report and check the duration of the previous refresh.
C. Execute an information space using SAP BusinessObjects Explorer.
D. Write and execute an appropriate SQL statement.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 You have created an MS Excel report on SAP HANA data.
On which of the following could you store the Excel file and make it available for other users?
A. Shared network drive
B. SAP BusinessObjects Information Design Tool
C. SAP HANA database
D. SAP HANA studio Content node
Answer: A

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NO.7 You want to create a graphical calculation view using the SAP HANA studio. Which steps are
mandatory for this task? (Choose three)
A. Define a projection.
B. Write an SQL script.
C. Save and activate the view.
D. Define output fields.
E. Choose a data source.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 When building a business layer to report on SAP HANA, what do you have to do if you want to
display more than 5,000 rows?
A. Remove all filters from the analytic views.
B. Deactivate the Limit Size of Result Set parameter in the Central Management Console.
C. Set the Array Fetch Size parameter to the maximum in the relational connection.
D. Deactivate the Limit Size of Result Set parameter in the business layer.
Answer: D

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NO.1 RFx's may be created several ways. Which is not one of them?
A. Word document import
B. Via a template
C. Excel import
D. Within the UI
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the primary concept associated with reverse auction?
A. Allow buyers to speak with the incumbent supplier(s) during an auction to encourage competition.
B. Bid compression. Efficiently achieve market price in hours versus weeks.
C. Allow suppliers to increase RFP pricing, if necessary.
D. Make it easy for a buyer to make an award decision.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Emptoris SLM has sophisticated evaluation criteria including by category and by region. Who do
we compete with most with this capability?
A. SAP
B. Oracle
C. Ariba
D. Aravo
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is not an example of a function within Sourcing Desktop Intelligence (SDI)?
A. Analyze supplier rankings.
B. Look at supplier bids with statistics.
C. Carry an RFP directly into a Reverse Auction.
D. Compare supplier responses side by side.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Suppler Questionnaire can be automatically released?
A. After a certain date
B. When their status changes
C. When their score is greater than a predefined value
D. When their renewal cycle is triggered
Answer: C

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NO.6 Contract Management reduces contract review times by:
A. Providing a scalable solution
B. Utilizing the interview wizard
C. Reducing staff
D. Online approval management
Answer: D

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